very hard please
0. though the gleams blind and dazzle, yet do they convey a hint of beauty and serenity greater than we have known or imagined. Greater too than we can describe; for language, which was invented to convey the meanings of this world, cannot readily be fitted to the uses of another.

a. why doesn't writer use another uses instead of the uses of another in 0. i think the another is adj, and the uses is noun, why doesn't he write down another directly? is it for some effects that is about rhetoric?

Question

very hard please
0. though the gleams blind and dazzle, yet do they convey a hint of beauty and serenity greater than we have known or imagined. Greater too than we can describe; for language, which was invented to convey the meanings of this world, cannot readily be fitted to the uses of another.

a. why doesn't writer use another uses instead of the uses of another in 0. i think the another is adj, and the uses is noun, why doesn't he write down another directly? is it for some effects that is about rhetoric?

Answer

You should understand the sentence as "...cannot readily be fitted to the uses of another (world)" - "another" is a substantive, which represents "another world" and is in contrast to "this world".

Language was designed for this world, and it would not easily be appropriate for describing another, different world.

I am not sure of the context, but it seems that it says that those "gleams" can't be described by the language of our world, which is very mundane compared to the world of "beauty and serenity greater than we have known or described."

By the way, try and use quotation marks so that your question is a bit easier to read.