Yan
When to use "per aver" or "per far"? Ciao! I'm reading some Italian text and sometimes I see sentences that contains "per aver" or "per far". I know the meaning for "per avere" (to have, or for having) and "per fare" (to make, or for making). Why is the "e" missing? Are they typos or some grammatical conjugation that I'm not familiar with?? Grazie mille, - Yan
2009年1月5日 12:10
回答 · 5
2
That is a linguistic phenomenon called "apocope" or "troncamento". I found an explanation (in italian) of how it works here: http://forum.wordreference.com/showthread.php?t=618723 I hope that will be useful. I also apologize for my poor English.
2009年1月5日
1
Hi Yan, this is a simple licence to make more speedy and fluent the sentence that contains these verbs shortened, in fact they would be considered as errors, but it's common use to "eat" the final vowel in some verb. You can find something similar also in american slang: "d'yo think ...; I gotcha ...; I don't ... (do not); I've ... (I have); etc. Ciao
2009年1月6日
1
Sometimes you can meet other similar phenomenon like "col" instead "con il" or "colla" instead "con la" (with the) usually when there's apostrophe. Actually these forms are used mainly but not only in the spoken language. You will hear sentences like this: "Io sono tornato [io tornai] a casa coll'autobus" [con l' ] (I came back home by bus) "Maria e' uscita colle [con le] amiche" (Maria went out with her friends)
2009年1月5日
1
I think It's the same linguistic phenomenon of callin' instead calling or jumpin' for jumping. (for having said, for havin' said) "per avere detto" or "per aver detto" are the same.
2009年1月5日
sorry "similar phenomena" :)
2009年1月5日
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