寻找适合你的 英语 教师…
Beebeezhou
Do they have the same meaning: none voice not a voice was heard?And which one is better?
2010年10月13日 03:18
回答 · 5
Beebeezhou, Yes, they mean the same thing, but "none" is no longer used as an adjective in English. It was used a long time ago, around the 16th century. none adj. archaic...no, not any, not a The modern version of "none voice" would be "no voice" or "not a voice" or "not any voice". Examples: The theatre was filled to capacity but not a voice was heard as the sound of music filled the air. No voice was heard above the roar of the sea but the captain shouting, "Thar be the whale!". It was a beautiful voice, but not any voice that I recognized. ------------------- "None" is still used as a pronoun for things and people in modern English. Examples: I listened carefully, but none of the voices sounded familiar. As it turned out, when I asked, none of my Chinese friends had heard about the sport of lacrosse.
2010年10月13日
I'm deaf
2010年10月13日
Consider the above answers. You could also say : "No voice was heard".
2010年10月13日
"not a voice was heard" is definitely better than "none voice." I understand the meaning of "not a voice was heard", but I don't think "none voice" exists as a phrase. In short, "not a voice was heard" has a meaning, but "none voice" does not. "not a voice was heard" is the better phrase.
2010年10月13日
**Not a voice was hear.** is correct. The "none voice" is pure nonsense.
2010年10月13日
还未找到你的答案吗?
把你的问题写下来,让母语人士来帮助你!

Don’t miss out on the opportunity to learn a language from the comfort of your own home. Browse our selection of experienced language tutors and enroll in your first lesson now!