Search from various English teachers...
Andrea
Does "I'm never invited to parties." equal "I've never been invited to parties."?
As you can see in the Topic.
Are they the same? If not, then what's the difference?
Thanks!
Jan 23, 2012 9:12 AM
Answers · 4
4
"I'm never invited to parties." = people don't invite me to parties
"I've never been invited to parties." = at this point in time you haven't been invited to a party yet.
January 23, 2012
1
The statements are not the same. "I am never.." indicates present tense, continuing action, but does not entirely preclude the possibility the speaker has been invited on some occasion in the past. "I have never been.." is a definite statement that it has not happened in the past up to the present.
January 23, 2012
Still haven’t found your answers?
Write down your questions and let the native speakers help you!
Andrea
Language Skills
Arabic (Modern Standard), Chinese (Mandarin), Chinese (Shanghainese), English, French, Japanese, Portuguese
Learning Language
English, French, Japanese
Articles You May Also Like

🎃 October Traditions: Halloween, Holidays, and Learning Portuguese
23 likes · 7 Comments

The Curious World of Silent Letters in English
27 likes · 13 Comments

5 Polite Ways to Say “No” at Work
31 likes · 7 Comments
More articles