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Liza
Haven't seen you IN ages vs FOR ages
is there any difference between the phrases I haven't seen you in ages and I haven't seen you for ages? Which one is more frequently used?
Jul 15, 2013 4:19 PM
Answers · 10
6
There's no difference in meaning, both are fine.
I hear "for ages" much more frequently by British English speakers, and "in ages" more commonly spoken by American English speakers.
July 15, 2013
3
Honestly, you could use either one. There is no difference in meaning between them. They are both used with about the same frequency.
July 15, 2013
1
both work but are a bit colloquial, informal, casual.
I would say "I have not seen you for a long time" or "i have not seen you for such a long time" ('such' increases the timescale )
July 19, 2014
IN AGES is used after negative and superlative structures; and never used with future tenses.
e.g. I haven't seen him in ages. or I haven't seem him for ages. (same meaning)
e.g. This is the best movie I've seen in ages. (here you can't replace IN AGES for FOR AGES)
I'm not a native speaker however most ESL grammar books and courses mention FOR AGES in their examples and drills so I guess FOR AGES is more frequent.
June 9, 2023
Thank you!
July 20, 2014
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Liza
Language Skills
English, Russian
Learning Language
English
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