Search from various English teachers...
A7med
What does he (have/has) to do with this?
which one is correct ( has / have )?
I know "has" is always right after he or she or anything indicates a specific person, but I saw this statement before with "have" instead of "has"
Jan 12, 2016 12:42 PM
Answers · 3
2
It is the auxiliary verb 'does' (with an 's' at the end) which agrees with the pronoun 'he'.
The main verb (have) is it the infinitive form: 'have'.
When you have the auxiliary 'do'/'does'/'did', or their negative forms, in your sentence, the main verb doesn't have an 's'. For example:
Affirmative --> He goes.
Negative ---> He doesn't go.
Question ---> Does he go?
Affirmative --> He has.
Negative ---> He doesn't have.
Question ---> Does he have?
January 12, 2016
Still haven’t found your answers?
Write down your questions and let the native speakers help you!
A7med
Language Skills
Arabic, English
Learning Language
English
Articles You May Also Like

How to Ask for a Raise or Promotion in English
9 likes · 8 Comments

The Key to Learning a Language Faster
29 likes · 8 Comments

Why "General English" is Failing Your Career (An Engineer’s Perspective)
29 likes · 12 Comments
More articles
