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A7med
What does he (have/has) to do with this?
which one is correct ( has / have )?
I know "has" is always right after he or she or anything indicates a specific person, but I saw this statement before with "have" instead of "has"
Jan 12, 2016 12:42 PM
Answers · 3
2
It is the auxiliary verb 'does' (with an 's' at the end) which agrees with the pronoun 'he'.
The main verb (have) is it the infinitive form: 'have'.
When you have the auxiliary 'do'/'does'/'did', or their negative forms, in your sentence, the main verb doesn't have an 's'. For example:
Affirmative --> He goes.
Negative ---> He doesn't go.
Question ---> Does he go?
Affirmative --> He has.
Negative ---> He doesn't have.
Question ---> Does he have?
January 12, 2016
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A7med
Language Skills
Arabic, English
Learning Language
English
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