First of all, you need to keep in mind the first example (at least appears to be) the New King James version of the Bible. This is not in any way a standard form of English. Also, like many religious texts, many of the passages of the Bible were written as poetry, and therefore, artistic license was taken both in its creation and in its translation. Your reference to the "dummy there" only shows the possibility of existence, "If there (meaning where you are) arise among you..." Any time you have a dummy subject it's meant to show possibility. "I know you're out there somewhere," or "there's plenty of time," these both show potential (but not necessarily certain) existence. The inversion you mention has nothing to do with the "there," it's merely stylistic. The first instance is an outdated word order and the second is artistic license. The author wanted to place emphasis on the action and break up the long descriptive phrase, prompting the reader to break the flow and concentrate on the word “rose.” It’s important to note that while this kind of inversion makes artistic writing more interesting, it is not appropriate in everyday speech.

In the past, any element at the beginning of a sentence could cause inversion. Nowadays, this is mainly only the case with negatives or limiters such as never or seldom. BTW, if you're curious, "arise" doesn't have a suffix because it's in the subjunctive.

The first sentence is not an inversion, just as "There is a book on the table" or "There remains considerable doubt as to his integrity" is not an inversion.

Gabriel, The best answer I can give you is that the biblical reference uses "there" as an imperfect future tense, as in: If (in the future) there arises...". This version of the Bible you referred to translates the hebrew verb "quwm" (קוּם) and also appears in Deut 17:8. 3) The imperfect is used to express the "future", referring not only to an action which is about to be accomplished but one which has not yet begun. This may be a future from the point of view of the real present and it may be a future from any other point of view assumed. The second reference you gave, from "Dracula" (Chapter 1), employs a form of prose in which the "there" is implied. The structure, which you refer to as inverted, is common in literature and acceptable in formal uses. Hope this helps some. Dan