Could anyone help me to answer these questions? 1. Does ‘I can’t see it anywhere’ have the same meaning as ‘I can’t find it anywhere’? 2. Why at the beginning of an email they always say, ‘I’m writing to …’ not ‘I write to’? Is it OK to say 'I write to'? 3. Did I use the right tense in this sentence: ‘Last week, I went to market, the thief had sneaked in my house and stole my money.’
May 7, 2016 2:34 PM
Answers · 6
I would say that "I can't see it anywhere." and "I can't find it anywhere." can have the same meaning but "I can't see it anywhere." implies that you are actively looking whereas "I can't find it anywhere." could be used to inform someone of your search but you aren't necessarily actually searching for it at the time. "I am writing to..." indicates the writing is in progress. "I write to..." doesn't imply immediacy. In the last sentence, "sneaked" is the acceptable past participle of the verb but I would change the phrase to: "...the thief had sneaked into tmy house." "Into" is much more common. Also, it is acceptable (although there is a debate concerning this, to use "snuck" for sneaked. Several dictionary sources accept "snuck" in place of "sneaked", especially in the last 20 years.
May 7, 2016
July 24, 2016
Thank you very much, Max P!
May 11, 2016 ‘I write to’ is a very, very direct way of saying it. It's not wrong to say that you write to someone, but it is not how people talk. Yes ‘I can’t see it anywhere’ same thing.
May 7, 2016
Still haven’t found your answers?
Write down your questions and let the native speakers help you!