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Михаил
Why don't "vorbereiten" have "ge-" in participle II? I have written the sentences with "sich vorberieten" verb. Some were in perfect. Before publishing I checked my sentences with Libre Office Write and was very surprised. I thought "vorgebereitet" is the participle II form of this verb, because vor- is a separated prefix. Then I checked this form of "vorbereiten" with some web-sites, and found "vorbereitet" form. But why? I read this way is only for unseparated prefixes, and there is written that "vorberiten" is not strong verb in dictionary.
Aug 13, 2016 3:36 PM
Answers · 2
2
Hi, the reason is because in this example there are actually two prefixes --> vor + be + reiten. When the verb is made of two prefixes, then the participle will not have "ge". This is sort of an exception since in this case vorbereiten is actually a separable verb "Ich bereite mich vor", but the past perfect tense will be kept together. I hope this helps! Jaime
August 13, 2016
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