Stacee
What is the difference between saying ana amluk, ana indee, and ana ladahya in Arabic? Hi. I'm a beginner in learning Arabic. Can someone please explain to me when to use amlak, iindee, and ladahya? Is there a difference or is it interchangeable? Are those word choices for different dialects? I'm using a website that is choosing all three forms to mean "I have". Which word is best to use if there is a "best one"? I really would appreciate the help. Thank you in advance.I also heard ana amtaliku, but I'm assuming that's part of amlak(?)... or is that another option as well?
Jun 29, 2017 11:25 PM
Answers · 9
1
The four terms have the same meaning wich express the possession"to have", ana amlok (انا املك)-ana amtalik (انا امتلك)= I own ana iindee(انا عندي )-ana ladaya(انا لدي)=I have So you can use any one of these four. I hope this help you :)
June 29, 2017
1
they all have the same meaning there is no difference
July 2, 2017
1
amlak ... own أملك I own a book أنا أملك كتاب, iindee ... ana iindee ketab ... I have a book أنا لدي كتاب ladahya ... same have but used with a group like nahn ladahya ketab we have a book نحند لدينا كتاب
June 30, 2017
1
ana amtaliku or amlak (both of words are the same but the preference is for amlak) = I own (like a house , car , company , 50,000 $) they use normally for something big. ana iindee= I have ,this word is an open word , and you can say it for something big and small ( car , cat , mobile , money , a new dress , allergy , cold , … ). = more popular ana ladahya = I have , it is less used than ana iindee. I hope it is clear for you now! Regards ))
June 30, 2017
1
All of the are the same meaning, you can use of them as you like, nothing is better, the difference is Amulak is a verb ( you have to conjugate it ). Good luck with Arabic.
June 30, 2017
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Stacee
Language Skills
Arabic, Chinese (Mandarin), English, French, Korean, Portuguese, Spanish, Swahili, Xhosa
Learning Language
Arabic, Chinese (Mandarin), French, Korean, Portuguese, Spanish, Swahili, Xhosa