to have someone do something Good afternoon! I came across an interesting sentence: He had Dan help him fix his laptop. I know there is the structure "HAVE smth DONE", but this one is a little bit different i.e. we don't have PAST PARTICIPLE in it. I have never seen this kind of grammar. What kind of grammar it is? Why there's no "TO" between someone and do (in to have someone do something)? Is it because of the verb have that is similar to make and let (which are used without to)? Could you please give me a couple of sentences to illustrate this type of grammar? Thank you very much!
Nov 29, 2017 12:17 PM
Answers · 9
Good morning! The word "had" is used when we formulate sentences using the present perfect tense plus a past participle. So, for example, "They have fixed laptops for a few months now." This implies that whatever they started doing is still ongoing. But, we can easily change it to mean something that once occurred in the past, but didn't necessarily continue well into the future/present time. "They had fixed laptops." This indicates that they once did something, but it doesn't indicate that they kept up with fixing laptops. "He has (has and have are both a part of the present perfect) Dan help him fix his laptop." "He had Dan help him fix his laptop." Hope this was helpful! Note: I completely interpreted this the wrong way. My apologies! The answer below is a good answer! :)
November 29, 2017
Exactly right. It's called a causative, and it follows the same pattern as causative constructions with make and let. The sequence is this: Causative verb + direct object + bare infinitive of main verb I let him do it = I allowed him to do it I made him do it = I forced him to do it I had him do it = I asked him to do it/ I arranged for him to do it
November 29, 2017
I agree with Also one more to add- 'get' in the causative construction. Get in this case doesn't use a bare infinitive. I got my brother to take me to the game. I bought him some popcorn. Get in this case means persuade.
November 29, 2017
Hi there You are right, it has the same grammar as you mentioned( let sb do sth....) In addition to what the other guys explained, you can use this phrase as well. You got me to call you You got me calling you
November 29, 2017
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