Kseniia
I've not / I haven't Hi everyone! Maybe that's a stupid question, but... does it sound strange when a foreign person says, "I've not seen that before" instead of "I haven't seen that before"? (no special emphasis on "not" implied) Is there a significant difference between these two contractions? I've read that "I've not" is considered as old-fashioned sometimes - does that mean that I should strictly stick to "I haven't"? Thanks in advance.
Feb 13, 2018 5:32 PM
Answers · 13
2
In my head, I hear "I've not seen that," with a stuffy British accent. :) In Canada and the USA, I believe that "I haven't seen that" is more common, but both are correct. The only time I can think of where "I've" is incorrect is where "have" is taken to mean "must". You can't say "I've to go" or "I've to take a sick day." Funny...I originally typed "You cannot say..." and it sounded too British in my head. :P
February 13, 2018
1
It doesn't sound strange to me. "I haven't seen" is standard English, but "I've not seen" is also correct. There are some regional differences, certainly in the UK. It's not uncommon to hear "I've not seen..." rather than "I haven't seen" in the north of England, as well as in Scotland and Ireland.
February 13, 2018
1
I don't see or hear any difference between the two and frankly would use them interchangeably.
February 14, 2018
1
The phrase "I've not ......" is not as common as "I haven't ...." but both sound fine and mean the same thing.
February 13, 2018
1
We all forgot to explain that "I haven't" and "I've not" are a shortened version of the same term: "I have not". --------- 1: "I have not" ----> "I have n_t"------------> "I haven't" 2: "I have not" -------> "I __ve not" ----------> "I've not"
February 14, 2018
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