Search from various English teachers...
Ethan
What's the difference between "tend to", "incline to", and "prone to"?
Mar 2, 2019 12:56 AM
Answers · 4
7
No meaningful difference.
However, "to tend to do" is used in the active voice.
"The children tend to make noise while playing."
The others are more formal and are used in the passive voice ("to be inclined to do" and "to be prone to do").
"The children are inclined to make noise while playing."
"The children are prone to make noise while playing."
March 2, 2019
2
Take note of what Chris has written.
The idiotic down voter has struck again. I corrected the idiocy by voting Chris's comment back up.
March 2, 2019
Still haven’t found your answers?
Write down your questions and let the native speakers help you!
Ethan
Language Skills
Chinese (Mandarin), English, Italian, Japanese, Spanish, Vietnamese
Learning Language
English, Italian, Japanese, Spanish
Articles You May Also Like

Same Word, Different Meaning: American, British, and South African English
11 likes · 8 Comments

How to Sound Confident in English (Even When You’re Nervous)
13 likes · 11 Comments

Marketing Vocabulary and Phrases for Business English Learners
10 likes · 4 Comments
More articles