the pronunciation of "beber"
in the word "beber",for the pronunciation of 2 Bs, are there any difference between the first b and the second b?
one webpage says:
The Spanish "b" (be larga) and "v" (be corta) are pronounced exactly alike. These letters have two separate sounds, hard and soft. At the beginning of a word and after "m" or "n", the hard Spanish "b/v" closely resembles the "b" in the word "boy," except that the lips are held tense. In other situations, the "b/v" is pronounced like an English "b" in which the lips are not allowed to touch. (This is a sound that does not exist in English.)
does above rule apply to my question?
Gracias!

Question

the pronunciation of "beber"
in the word "beber",for the  pronunciation of 2 Bs, are there any difference between the first b and the second b?
one webpage says:
The Spanish "b" (be larga) and "v" (be corta) are pronounced exactly alike. These letters have two separate sounds, hard and soft. At the beginning of a word and after "m" or "n", the hard Spanish "b/v" closely resembles the "b" in the word "boy," except that the lips are held tense. In other situations, the "b/v" is pronounced like an English "b" in which the lips are not allowed to touch. (This is a sound that does not exist in English.)
does above rule apply to my question?
Gracias!

Answer

Nin hao. 

At the beginning of a word and after "m" or "n", the b/v is an occlusive (the two lips touch each other), but in other situations the b/v is a fricative (the two lips approach, but dont touch each other) 
In "Beber no es malo", the first b is occlusive and the second is fricative. 
In "El beber no es malo", the two b are fricative

Answer

for V and b we always use "b" sound
that is a very very old form I think you shoul search in another place letter pronunciation

Answer

the sound is exactly the same in "B" and in "V" always... without exceptions...

obviously in BEBER the sound must be the same in both "B"