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Beebeezhou
Do they have the same meaning:
none voice not a voice was heard?And which one is better?
Oct 13, 2010 3:18 AM
Answers · 5
Beebeezhou,
Yes, they mean the same thing, but "none" is no longer used as an adjective in English. It was used a long time ago, around the 16th century.
none adj. archaic...no, not any, not a
The modern version of "none voice" would be "no voice" or "not a voice" or "not any voice".
Examples:
The theatre was filled to capacity but not a voice was heard as the sound of music filled the air.
No voice was heard above the roar of the sea but the captain shouting, "Thar be the whale!".
It was a beautiful voice, but not any voice that I recognized.
-------------------
"None" is still used as a pronoun for things and people in modern English.
Examples:
I listened carefully, but none of the voices sounded familiar.
As it turned out, when I asked, none of my Chinese friends had heard about the sport of lacrosse.
October 13, 2010
I'm deaf
October 13, 2010
Consider the above answers.
You could also say :
"No voice was heard".
October 13, 2010
"not a voice was heard" is definitely better than "none voice." I understand the meaning of "not a voice was heard", but I don't think "none voice" exists as a phrase.
In short, "not a voice was heard" has a meaning, but "none voice" does not. "not a voice was heard" is the better phrase.
October 13, 2010
**Not a voice was hear.** is correct.
The "none voice" is pure nonsense.
October 13, 2010
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Beebeezhou
Language Skills
Chinese (Mandarin), Chinese (Cantonese), Chinese (Other), English, Japanese
Learning Language
English, Japanese
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