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Is it correct to say the following? >> I'm not as rich as HER Actually, the question is SHE vs. HER, and why. A couple of times I found on the internet the expression wich I wrote in the title. Though I'm used to this version >> I'm not as rich as SHE is. So, is it correct to say the following? >> I'm not as rich as HER Perhaps it might be correct in some way, like a conversational saying... What would you say? Can it can be used and when/where?
Apr 28, 2011 7:50 PM
Answers · 11
Yes. Both are correct. You couldn't for example say "I am as rich as she" without the "is" on the end. :)
April 28, 2011
I'm not as rich as her. I'm not as rich as she is. There is a reason for the "her" in #1, which I learned many years ago. Sadly I've forgotten the exact explanation. It has something to do with what is called the "vocative", or in the case of English, remnants of the vocative. Google it.
April 29, 2011
Some English speakers prefer to use the nominative case (the subject form) plus a verb after the second 'as' - I'm not as rich as she is - rather than the accusative case (the object form) - I'm not as rich as her- especially in formal situations. The alternative of omitting the verb after 'she' is considered even more formal and not used by most British English speakers. So the most used would be 'I'm not as rich as her'. Then 'I'm not as rich as she is'. And the least used 'I'm not as rich as she.'
April 29, 2011
yes both are correct but it is more proper english to say i am not as rich as she is
April 28, 2011
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