Search from various English teachers...
Boubouja
"to get" and "to be" in passive voice
The passive voice: what is the difference when we use "to be + past participal of verb" and "to get+past participal of verb", is the meaning changes or not ?
Sep 18, 2014 10:57 AM
Answers · 4
1
'Get' + past participle is an alternative to 'Be'+ past participle in some - but not all - uses of the passive.
We often use it for negative outcomes eg my house got burgled, the policeman got shot, John got fired from his job.
It's also used to suggest a degree of difficulty eg after a number of problems the hotel finally got built.
It's tricky to know when it's appropriate to use a 'get' passive and when it isn't. From your point of view, it's probably be best to be aware of this form, but stick to to the standard 'be' passive in most cases. You should also remember that all sentences with 'get' tend to be more informal than their equivalents without 'that'.
September 18, 2014
No, the meaning does not change. For some common expressions, we prefer one over the other, but they have the same meaning.
September 18, 2014
Still haven’t found your answers?
Write down your questions and let the native speakers help you!
Boubouja
Language Skills
Arabic (Maghrebi), English
Learning Language
English
Articles You May Also Like

Same Word, Different Meaning: American, British, and South African English
10 likes · 7 Comments

How to Sound Confident in English (Even When You’re Nervous)
12 likes · 9 Comments

Marketing Vocabulary and Phrases for Business English Learners
8 likes · 2 Comments
More articles