Edi Wang
A question about one wordsmith's tense. get, got, gotten are separately the present, past, past participle form of 'get'. However, I have found a weird usage several times that a 'have' is followed by a 'got' as the past participle form in dictionary. For example: He's got no right to keep dumping his problems on me. You've got three years' worth of research money to do what you want with. Is this 'got' past participle a correct using?
Nov 13, 2018 2:55 AM
Answers · 6
1
In the UK, the verb is get got got. UK: I have got yelled at several times. US: I have gotten yelled at several times. In addition, even in America, we use "have got" to mean "have": US and UK: I've got 5 biscuits on this plate. I know several speakers of British English who have a deep, visceral hatred of the word "gotten". They flinch every time I say it.
November 13, 2018
1
You can use "got" in those instances after a "You've" or "You Have" or "He Has" ... but the proper pronunciation is to omit the "got". It is an extra word and really serves no purpose. It is actually redundant. Example: A) You've got three years' worth is the same as B) You have three years' worth Both A and B imply possession of a quantity. However, A) is more of a lazy English I think? I also know that many folks in my area speak like example A) I just choose not to because it is redundant to imply possession twice.
November 13, 2018
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