No, I think I get it. So, if there is no direct or indirect object pronoun and the verb in passé composé uses the auxilliary verb "avoir", then the verb does not need to agree with the gender and plurality of the verb's subject. However, if the auxiliary verb is être, or if there is an object pronoun before the verb, then the verb must agree with the gender and plurality of the subject or object pronoun, respectively. Did I get that right?