Word order can be important in these sorts of statements. Even native speakers get it wrong sometimes. I'm giving my opinion, not sure if it's totally official, but I did take a logic course once.
1a. All the English people don't like fish and chips. = Grammatically okay, but kind of confusing logically. It seems to mean that NO English people like fish and chips (since the all DON"T like it).
1b. Not all the English people like fish and chips.= CORRECT - and I think this is the meaning you were trying for, i.e. some like fish and chips, some don't.
Question:
Which is grammatically correct?
2a. They are not all fools. = correct Some of them may be fools, but not all of them.
2b. They all are not fools. = correct, but means: NONE of them are fools, because they all are not fools.
2c. They are not all of them fools(p.₃₁₇). I'm not sure this is correct. It's not the best way of saying this at least.
2d. They all of them are not fools. INCORRECT
2e. Not all of them are fools. CORRECT, some may be fools, but not all of them.
2f. All of them are not fools. CORRECT, but means NONE of them are fools.
Question: Which is/are grammatically correct?
Do all (these six sentences) have the same meaning?
3a. They are not all of three fools.
(context: They are three people)
3b. They all of three are not fools. INCORRECT
3c. All three of them are not fools. CORRECT: but difficult to determine whether some may be fools, or none are fools.
3d. Three of them all are not fools. INCORRECT:
Which is grammatically correct?