Probably it will relly on the slang of every country, but to carry a message across a spanish speaking person whether from Argentina or Mexico or Spain it will be no difference, in Mexico they say USTEDES, while in Spain they say VOSOTROS

Very different in some aspects I would say. Variations can be in pronunciation, syntax of the sentences, grammar, pronouns (like the "voseo"), meaning of words and, of course, slang. In terms of how big, well possibly a person from Spain can be speaking to a person from Mexico and not completely understand SOME words but get the gist of what is being said. For example, I went to a theater show where the actors were from Spain and in the sung parts it was slightly hard to understand wha

I'm researching the linguistic difference between the European Spanish (Spanish Spanish) and Latin American Spanish, especially Mexican Spanish and Argentine Spanish. We have a Spanish manual which was translated by a translator in Spain. I am not sure if this is readable in Latine American people such as Mexican and Argentine people. If this is not acceptable, should we make each Spanish version for each country in Latine America? Please advise how you think of this.