James
Please explain to me.. As I read the newspaper, I found a grammatically irregular term. See the following sentence. People watching a live sports game like a European League soccer match won't have to suffer the frustration of a slow feed or disconnection thanks to the stronger connectivity. The question is why there are two verbs in that sentence "won't have to suffer" and "thanks". I don't get it.
22 Thg 10 2014 02:25
Câu trả lời · 11
3
Hi James, in this sentence "thanks" is not being used as a verb. It is like saying "due to" or "because of." So, you could write instead: People watching a live sports game like a European League soccer match won't have to suffer the frustration of a slow feed or disconnection due to the stronger connectivity. I hope this helps!
22 tháng 10 năm 2014
1
People watching a live sports game like a European League soccer match won't have to suffer the frustration of a slow feed or disconnection thanks to the stronger connectivity. "have to" is a modal verb here, have to suffer = unavoidable, "don't have to suffer" -- present tense, "won't have to suffer" -- future tense here "thanks" isn't a verb, it's the equivalent of "due to"
22 tháng 10 năm 2014
1
"(They) won't have to suffer..." There's nothing irregular about this at all. The "won't have to" part works the same was as "won't be forced to/made to/obliged to". Jared's explained the use of "thanks to" pretty well, and once again this is a regular and common expression.
22 tháng 10 năm 2014
Bạn vẫn không tìm thấy được các câu trả lời cho mình?
Hãy viết xuống các câu hỏi của bạn và để cho người bản xứ giúp bạn!